I interpret their "seven" as being the "n" in...
[math]{T_n}\left( x \right) = \sum\limits_{i = 0}^n {\frac{{{f^{\left( i \right)}}\left( a \right)}}{{i!}}{{\left( {x - a} \right)}^i}}[/math]
...otherwise the question just doesn't seem to make sense (to me anyway)
Most pages I've just looked up talk about the nth degree Taylor polynomial in general terms without specifying that the nth derivative must be non-zero. For example http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcII/TaylorSeries.aspx @tkhunny please can you cite a reference to a definition that states there must be a non-zero coefficient to the last, nth, term?
Apart from the discussion of degrees, could you confirm me what I posted, that according to you, then p(x) is an example of a function which has p(x) as its Taylor polinomial of degree seven - regardless the value of a (in this case a = 4) -. Yes?, if I haven't interpreted your response improperly