Taylor polynomials doubt

I interpret their "seven" as being the "n" in...

[math]{T_n}\left( x \right) = \sum\limits_{i = 0}^n {\frac{{{f^{\left( i \right)}}\left( a \right)}}{{i!}}{{\left( {x - a} \right)}^i}}[/math]
...otherwise the question just doesn't seem to make sense (to me anyway)

Most pages I've just looked up talk about the nth degree Taylor polynomial in general terms without specifying that the nth derivative must be non-zero. For example http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcII/TaylorSeries.aspx @tkhunny please can you cite a reference to a definition that states there must be a non-zero coefficient to the last, nth, term?

Apart from the discussion of degrees, could you confirm me what I posted, that according to you, then p(x) is an example of a function which has p(x) as its Taylor polinomial of degree seven - regardless the value of a (in this case a = 4) -. Yes?, if I haven't interpreted your response improperly
 
Anyway - if anyone is interested here's one way to get infinite different functions f(x) that have p(x) as their "n=7" Taylor series (carefully avoiding the word degree :censored: :))

f(x) = p(x) + c*[ cos(x-4) - ( 1 - (x-4)^2/2! + (x-4)^4/4! - (x-4)^6/6! ) ]

The expression within square brackets [] has no Taylor series for the first 7 terms, so "c" can have any value. This only works around x=4 ( a=4 ).

This works because "( 1 - (x-4)^2/2! + (x-4)^4/4! - (x-4)^6/6! )" are the first few terms of the Taylor series for cos(x-4).
How do you prove that? Just considering the taylor series for cos(x-4) as you said?
 
How do you prove that? Just considering the taylor series for cos(x-4) as you said?

I would not fancy doing the Taylor expansion of that by hand. So yes, I'd argue it with logic. I did check it in "maxima" (a computer algebra system) and it worked.

However, I recommend that you stick to using the simple example of p(x) in your answer. Post#20 is mostly for your interest/ info.

And to be on the safe side you could clearly state the assumption that the words "degree seven" are assumed to mean "n=7" in the Taylor series.
 
Where does it mention Taylor series?
Where did it happen, between Algebra I and Taylor Series, that we redefined the degree of a polynomial?

Where does the original problem statement mention "n=7"? It's fine if you want to define a different question and then answer the new question. I don't have a problem with that. It's just not an answer to the original question.
 
Where did it happen, between Algebra I and Taylor Series, that we redefined the degree of a polynomial?

I personally don't claim to be an authority. And I definately respect your opinion. But isn't it possible that the word "degree", in this context, refers to "n" in the definition of the Taylor polynomial? ie before a certain "f" has been plugged in. At this stage it is a polynomial with an x^n term.

You'll probably agree that it's useful to have the knowledge of what value of "n" was used even if it generated a zero coefficient. (For calculating extra terms, or error bounds purposes.)

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I have looked up the first page Google results for both "taylor polynomial degree" and "degree of taylor polynomial" and they didn't contain a clear definition for the word "degree" in this context (or at least I didn't think so). However the following page, further down, implied the above meaning:-


"the second degree Taylor Polynomial for sin x near 0 is P2(x)=x. It is rather disappointing that this turns out to be no different from P1 for sin x."

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I do think it's a great shame that there doesn't seem to be a "go to" source for precise mathematical definitions and nomenclature. Then everyone can be on the same page when communicating.
 
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