Show that y=c[sub:31a4h8da]1[/sub:31a4h8da]cosx + c[sub:31a4h8da]2[/sub:31a4h8da]sinx + xsinx + (cosx)ln(cosx) is the general solution of y''+y=secx on (-pi/2,pi/2). Explain carefully.
I started off by setting y''+y=0 and verifying that cosx and sinx are solutions of the homogeneous function. I don't know where to go from here. Do I set secx equal to zero. Thank you for your help!
I started off by setting y''+y=0 and verifying that cosx and sinx are solutions of the homogeneous function. I don't know where to go from here. Do I set secx equal to zero. Thank you for your help!