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Ahhhhhh.........deep stuff........no wonder you're a moderator.......:cool:
Yep ... I rate those modes savagely.....
Ahhhhhh.........deep stuff........no wonder you're a moderator.......:cool:
I'm new to these forums. I wouldn't normally resurrect an old question, except that this one did not get a satisfactory, or even correct, answer.Suppose you visit me in my house, I introduce you to my son and I tell you that I have another child.
Then P( my other child is a girl) = 2/3. (sample space is {bb, bg, gb}
Now suppose you visit me in my house, I introduce you to my son who I tell you is my 1st born and I tell you that I have another child.
Then P( my other child is a girl) = 1/2. (Let x,y mean my 1st child is sex x and my 2nd born is sex y. So sample space is {bb, bg})
Similarly, suppose you visit me in my house, I introduce you to my son who I tell you is my 2nd born and I tell you that I have another child.
Then P( my other child is a girl) = 1/2. (sample space is {gb, bb)
So the last two probabilities are the same.
Now suppose suppose you visit me in my house, I introduce you to my son who I tell you is my ??? born and I tell you that I have another child. The ??? means that you did not hear what I said.
Then P( my other child is a girl) = 1/2 because it does matter what I said.
But wait a minute! If you did not hear me then this is equivalent to the very 1st scenario which has P (other child is a girl) =2/3.
Combining this we conclude that P( other child is a girl) equals both 2/3 and 1/2.
So did I make a mistake or is this some kind of a paradox?
But your problem statement has no such ambiguity. We were not told that "at least one is a boy," we were shown that a specific child was a boy. When you are told about (or shown) a specific child, it does not matter how that child was selected as long as it is not a biased selection, as in Gardner's first case here. It could be the older, the younger, the first one we meet, or the one who sits to Mother's right at the dinner table. The chances that the other child is a boy, or a girl, are both 50%.Many readers correctly pointed out that the answer depends on the procedure by which the information "at least one is a boy" is obtained. If from all families with two children, at least one of whom is a boy, a family is chosen at random, then the answer is 1/3. But there is another procedure that leads to exactly the same statement of the problem. From families with two children, one family is selected at random. If both children are boys, the informant says "at least one is a boy." If both are girls, he says "at least one is a girl." And if both sexes are represented, he picks a child at random and says "at least one is a ..." naming the child picked. When this procedure is followed, the probability that both children are of the same sex is clearly 1/2. (This is easy to see because the informant makes a statement in each of the four cases -- BB, BG, GB, GG -- and in half of these case both children are of the same sex.) That the best of mathematicians can overlook such ambiguities is indicated by the fact that this problem, in unanswerable form, appeared in one of the best of recent college textbooks on modern mathematics.