What if you pretend you do not know quotient rule?
0)Preeminently, derivative is defined as a limit of a differential quotient: h→0limhf(a+h)−f(a). 1)Then, textbook proves (using above definition all the way): [(f+g)(x)]′=f′(x)+g′(x). 2)Then, it proves the product rule. 3)Then, it builds on previous two ("sum rule" and product rule; still using the definition) proving quotient rule: (f(x)1)′=h→0limh1[f(x+h)1−f(x)1]=h→0limh1[f(x+h)f(x)f(x)−f(x+h)]=...=−f2(x)f′(x)
:!: Oblivious of quotient rule, how would you show that (f(x)1)′=h→0limh1[f(x+h)1−f(x)1]=... :?:
This site uses cookies to help personalise content, tailor your experience and to keep you logged in if you register.
By continuing to use this site, you are consenting to our use of cookies.