Surely you meant post 16 where it says 1*x=1 for any x, thus the answer would be 1
Some interesting properties that work for any x,y (I'm pretty sure that these aren't useful for finding the answer therefore there's no spoiler)...
1*x = 1 (as per post 16)
(-1)*x = -1
0*x = x
(-x)*(-y) = x*y
(a+1a−1)∗(b+1b−1)=1+(a+1a−1)⋅(b+1b−1)(a+1a−1)+(b+1b−1) by the definition of *=(a+1)(b+1)+(a−1)(b−1)(a−1)(b+1)+(b−1)(a+1)=2ab+22ab−2=ab+1ab−1
This extends to any number of terms, since the inputs and outputs are in the same format of (x-1)/(x+1) where x is any number. And because...
y=x+1x−1⟹x=1−y1+y
...then the answer for 6 terms would be... a∗b∗c∗d∗e∗f=c2+1c2−1where c2=(a−1)(b−1)(c−1)(d−1)(e−1)(f−1)(a+1)(b+1)(c+1)(d+1)(e+1)(f+1)
Extending this for the original question, the answer would be...
c+1c−1where c=1×2×3×4×⋯×2017×2018×2019×20203×4×5×6×⋯×2019×2020×2021×2022=22021×2022=2043231therefore the answer isc+1c−1=10216161021615 in lowest termsThis is slightly different to BBB's answer in post#13 (I still suspect that BBB made a typo )
@BigBeachBanana my post#14 spoiler does actually contain an answer, but it's inside a spoiler within a spoiler. The outer spoiler says "without answer" because I thought this would enable people to click on the outer spoiler more readily. My English language "skills" sometimes let me down. (This post proves the conjecture of my post#14)
Here is what I got. I will state two theorems which I did prove (by induction)
Theorem #1: (2)(2+2*1)(2+2*2)...(2+4n) = (2n+2)/(2n+1).
Theorem #2: (1+2*1)(1+2*2)...(1+4n) = n/(n+1)
2021 = 1+4n implies n = 505
So (3)(5)(7)...(2021) = 505/506
2018=2+4n implies n=504
So (2)(4)...(2018) = 1010/1009
Now (2)(3)...(2021) = (1010/1009)(2020)(505/506) = (1010/1011)(505/506) = 1021615/1021616
Making observations: 2∗3=75,(2∗3)∗4=911,[(2∗3)∗4]∗5=1514,{[(2∗3)∗4]∗5}∗6=2022
The conjecture: Let a3=75,a4=911,...then: an=⎩⎪⎪⎨⎪⎪⎧n(n+1)/2+1n(n+1)/2−1n(n+1)/2−1n(n+1)/2+1for odd nfor even nor an=⎩⎪⎪⎨⎪⎪⎧n(n+1)+2n(n+1)−2n(n+1)−2n(n+1)+2for odd nfor even n
Therefore, a2021=2021(2022)+22021(2022)−2=10216161021615
The proof below was optional. If you noticed the pattern then it was sufficient.
Proof (by induction) for the odd case:
The base case (n=3) has shown to be true above in the observation.
The induction case: ak+1=ak∗(k+1)=k(k+1)−2k(k+1)−2∗(k+1)−some algebra steps−k(k+1)−2+(k(k+1)+2)(k+1)k(k+1)+2+(k(k+1)−2)(k+1)(k+1)(k+2)−2(k+1)(k+2)+2
The even case can be proven in a similar fashion.
I looked at (2*4)(6*8)... and noticed that the 1st entry in each bracket went up by 4. That was how I based my answer.
I think that I looked early on at what you did and then for some reason I did not see a pattern.
This is a nice algebra to look at. We noted how the usual role of 0 and 1 got interchanged. I am thinking about what the range of this would be.
Lets try this here. Let k be any real number.
(x+y)/(1+xy) = k
k(1+xy) = x+y
k+kxy = x+y
k-y = x +kxy = x(1+ky)
x = (k-y)/(1+ky)
Since y is free, we can be sure that 1+ky≠0
Hence the range is all reals.
I actually thought proving this would be hard.
Now we can talk about classes for k
Is this referring to class in group theory (click)? I know the basics of group theory but I've never delved into classes. Interesting - I hope you'll share any extra thoughts in this line
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