Hello! Can someone tell me why this is 0? We are doing Fourier Transformation right now and in one exercise we had this term and they say its 0. K(x,y;t) is a random function so i guess its the e^(-ikx) term which goes to 0? + and - are the borders of the solved integral.
It may be necessary for you to show us the entire context, including a statement of the theorem being proved, and the work leading to this statement. Are any conditions stated for function K, for instance?
I hope you have read our submission guidelines, starting here; this mentions that we want you to show the entire exercise, and tell us your ideas.
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