I have recently watched a video where someone concluded that \lim\limits_{x->0}\frac{|sin(x)|}{x} doesn't exist because
\lim\limits_{x->0^-}\frac{|sin(x)|}{x} = -1 and
\lim\limits_{x->0^+}\frac{|sin(x)|}{x} = 1.
I am aware that \lim\limits_{x->0}\frac{sin(x)}{x} but I am not sure why somehow |sin(x)| here when \lim\limits_{x->0} is assumed to be -cos(x) (if we apply l'hopital's rule) because the |sin(x)| should always be positive, it's the same as taking the values of x from the first and second quadrant.
I am sure I'm missing something here
can anyone help me with this?
Thanks
\lim\limits_{x->0^-}\frac{|sin(x)|}{x} = -1 and
\lim\limits_{x->0^+}\frac{|sin(x)|}{x} = 1.
I am aware that \lim\limits_{x->0}\frac{sin(x)}{x} but I am not sure why somehow |sin(x)| here when \lim\limits_{x->0} is assumed to be -cos(x) (if we apply l'hopital's rule) because the |sin(x)| should always be positive, it's the same as taking the values of x from the first and second quadrant.
I am sure I'm missing something here
can anyone help me with this?
Thanks
Last edited by a moderator: