hpdog259962
New member
- Joined
- Nov 16, 2020
- Messages
- 3
Greetings All!
I am looking for assistance in verifying a formula I wrote up is actually accurate to what I am trying to do.
I think it's right and just wanted to have someone glance it over.
The intention : To review the inner assets of a mutual co-op (which themselves are in multiples, and of different values), and calculate the amount of those inner assets which would be assessable at a certain stakelevel amount.
Here is what I have.
(The value of the stake multiplied by the fraction of the aggregate value of the specific asset against the value of the whole), divided by (The aggregate value of the asset divided by the amount of that specific asset)
So here's how I'm thinking it.
The value of the stake is multiplied by the fraction of the value of the holding vs the whole which would give us the value of the stake parted out throughout all the different assets.
At the same time we also have the aggregate value of a certain asset divided by the amount of if that asset, which gives us the value for a single unit.
We then divide the value of the single unit from the value which was fractioned off the person's stake to that specific asset, which would give us how many of each asset would be owned by a person at a specific stake amount in the mutual.
Correct? Am I close? Out in the middle of the lake with a rubber duck inner tube? Or should I be back on the tablets? You decide.
Thanks in advance!!!!
I am looking for assistance in verifying a formula I wrote up is actually accurate to what I am trying to do.
I think it's right and just wanted to have someone glance it over.
The intention : To review the inner assets of a mutual co-op (which themselves are in multiples, and of different values), and calculate the amount of those inner assets which would be assessable at a certain stakelevel amount.
Here is what I have.
(The value of the stake multiplied by the fraction of the aggregate value of the specific asset against the value of the whole), divided by (The aggregate value of the asset divided by the amount of that specific asset)
So here's how I'm thinking it.
The value of the stake is multiplied by the fraction of the value of the holding vs the whole which would give us the value of the stake parted out throughout all the different assets.
At the same time we also have the aggregate value of a certain asset divided by the amount of if that asset, which gives us the value for a single unit.
We then divide the value of the single unit from the value which was fractioned off the person's stake to that specific asset, which would give us how many of each asset would be owned by a person at a specific stake amount in the mutual.
Correct? Am I close? Out in the middle of the lake with a rubber duck inner tube? Or should I be back on the tablets? You decide.
Thanks in advance!!!!