I've been working on doing a proof for this theorem and I was hoping that someone could help me ensure that I am performing this correctly. It's been a while since I've taken math. Thanks in advance.
Real Analysis Theorem:
If, for every ? > 0, a ? b + ? , then a ? b .
Proof:
Let p ? for every ? > 0, a ? b + ? and q ? a ? b.
Therefore p -> q
I believe that the next step to proving this would be to form the negations ~p and ~q.
This would mean that ~p ? there exists ? > 0, a > b + ? and ~q ? a > b
I'm not sure of the next step, but I think the next logical step would be to write a contrapositive statement in the form of ~q -> ~p
The contrapositive statement is below:
If, a>b, then there exists ? > 0, a > b + ? .
After this step, I get lost. I assume I am to prove the contrapositive statement by letting ? = (a-b)/2 > 0 . But I'm not sure. So if anyone could guide me to what I should be doing here, I would be very grateful.
Real Analysis Theorem:
If, for every ? > 0, a ? b + ? , then a ? b .
Proof:
Let p ? for every ? > 0, a ? b + ? and q ? a ? b.
Therefore p -> q
I believe that the next step to proving this would be to form the negations ~p and ~q.
This would mean that ~p ? there exists ? > 0, a > b + ? and ~q ? a > b
I'm not sure of the next step, but I think the next logical step would be to write a contrapositive statement in the form of ~q -> ~p
The contrapositive statement is below:
If, a>b, then there exists ? > 0, a > b + ? .
After this step, I get lost. I assume I am to prove the contrapositive statement by letting ? = (a-b)/2 > 0 . But I'm not sure. So if anyone could guide me to what I should be doing here, I would be very grateful.