it is impossible [to cancel the denominator] because only a zero can cancel a zero, meaning that this statement will always be true. Is that correct?
Hello [imath]\int[/imath]. The first part is correct (it's impossible to "cancel" function g), but that somebody's reason why (involving zero) is not correct. The conclusion that the limit statement is true is nonetheless correct.
In a limit statement, variable x never takes on the value it approaches, so, in this exercise, x never equals 5. We don't have enough information about function f to know whether f(x) is exactly 2 in the neighborhood around x=5, but if not then we do know that f(x) gets as close to 2 as we'd like. Also, NO denominator is ever zero. What's happening here is that the denominator is approaching zero.
One line of thinking is to consider what happens to the value of a fraction when the denominator gets very, very small (in absolute value) while the numerator remains relatively fixed. If you're not sure, then experiment by substituting values and look for a trend.
We also need to understand that both of the following statements (about some arbitrary function) mean the limit doesn't exist. The limit doesn't exist because a limit is always a specific, Real number.
\(\displaystyle \lim_{x\to 5} h(x) = \infty\)
\(\displaystyle \lim_{x\to 5} h(x) = –\infty\)
For example, we could read the first statement as, "The value of h(x) increases without bound as x approaches 5; hence, the limit does
not exist".
What are your thoughts, now?
[imath]\;[/imath]