Um... You might want to try taking a little closer look at the actual statement of the classical problem.Genius said:So what would happen if S^2 is equal to PI(R)^2. We would have a circle with the same area as a square. This is supposed to be impossible because PI is irregular.
All you have done in your post is show that the square of a square root equals itself, and that (a/1)(b/a) = b for non-zero values of "a". I doubt you'll find anybody here who would argue these tautologies.... :shock:"There is no way, with only a collapsible compass and an unmarked straightedge, in a finite number of steps, to geometrically construct a square having the same area as a given circle."