Hi all!
I am integrating the function of 1/x between the values of x=1 and x=infinity. to do this, I am approximating the area of this function from 1 to 10, 1 to 100, 1 to 1000 (etc...). As I progress higher and higher, I noticed that the area stays fairly consistent after 1x10^17 (an approximate value of 33.0662578854).
So, I figure that the area of the function 1/x evaluated from one to infinity is not in fact infinity, but some finite number (around 33.066).
How can I truly express this? At first thought, I think I can integrate 1/x between 1 and the limit of N, as N approaches infinity. However, I would have no idea how to solve such a convoluted problem.
Any advice is appreciated! Thanks!
I am integrating the function of 1/x between the values of x=1 and x=infinity. to do this, I am approximating the area of this function from 1 to 10, 1 to 100, 1 to 1000 (etc...). As I progress higher and higher, I noticed that the area stays fairly consistent after 1x10^17 (an approximate value of 33.0662578854).
So, I figure that the area of the function 1/x evaluated from one to infinity is not in fact infinity, but some finite number (around 33.066).
How can I truly express this? At first thought, I think I can integrate 1/x between 1 and the limit of N, as N approaches infinity. However, I would have no idea how to solve such a convoluted problem.
Any advice is appreciated! Thanks!