This is an example from another website(http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcII/TrigSubstitutions.aspx):
when evaluating this integral:
we made this substitution:
and got this:
and then the websites say that "since we are doing an indefinite integral we will assume that
will be positive and so we can drop the absolute value bars"
My question is, why is such assumption legal? Thanks!!!
when evaluating this integral:

we made this substitution:

and got this:


and then the websites say that "since we are doing an indefinite integral we will assume that




My question is, why is such assumption legal? Thanks!!!