Steven G
Elite Member
- Joined
- Dec 30, 2014
- Messages
- 14,598
I would have thought that if you compute the derivative of f(x) and -f(x) and got the same answer then f(x) would be a constant.
Here is a proof of that statement: f'(x) = -f'(x)=> 2f'(x) = 0 => f'(x) = 0 => f(x) = c, a constant.
However that does not seem to be true. It is not true for f(x)= cos-1(x) and cos-1(x) is not a constant.
To see what I am saying about f(x) = cos-1(x):
Let y = cos-1(x) and y lies in 1st quadrant.
Then cos (y) =x (in the right triangle assume the adj side of y is x, opposite is sqrt(1-x2) and hyp is 1)
Taking the derivative of both sides yields 1=-sin(y)y' or y' = -1/sin(y) = -1/sqrt(1-x2).
Now let y=-cos-1(x) with y in 1st quadrant (or -y in quad IV).
Then cos (-y) =x (in the right triangle assume the adj side of y is x, opposite is -sqrt(1-x2) and hyp is 1)
Taking the derivative of both sides yields 1=sin(-y)y' or y' = 1/sin(-y) = -1/sqrt(1-x2).
What is going on here???
Here is a proof of that statement: f'(x) = -f'(x)=> 2f'(x) = 0 => f'(x) = 0 => f(x) = c, a constant.
However that does not seem to be true. It is not true for f(x)= cos-1(x) and cos-1(x) is not a constant.
To see what I am saying about f(x) = cos-1(x):
Let y = cos-1(x) and y lies in 1st quadrant.
Then cos (y) =x (in the right triangle assume the adj side of y is x, opposite is sqrt(1-x2) and hyp is 1)
Taking the derivative of both sides yields 1=-sin(y)y' or y' = -1/sin(y) = -1/sqrt(1-x2).
Now let y=-cos-1(x) with y in 1st quadrant (or -y in quad IV).
Then cos (-y) =x (in the right triangle assume the adj side of y is x, opposite is -sqrt(1-x2) and hyp is 1)
Taking the derivative of both sides yields 1=sin(-y)y' or y' = 1/sin(-y) = -1/sqrt(1-x2).
What is going on here???