This thread got me thinking about something I've had in the back of my mind for a while...
It is generally accepted that [MATH]\sqrt{0} = 0[/MATH]. In my experience, it has universally been the case that [MATH]0^2 = 0[/MATH] has been cited as evidence of this claim. The logic is that if square root of some number [MATH]x[/MATH] is defined as the number [MATH]r[/MATH] such that [MATH]r^2 = x[/MATH], then zero is its own square root.
But... I'm not completely sold on that idea. It's a narrow, incomplete view of square root, and the claim doesn't hold up under broader scrutiny...
Square root has another relationship: [MATH]\frac{x}{\sqrt{x}} = \sqrt{x}[/MATH]. If [MATH]\sqrt{0} = 0[/MATH], then it should also be true that [MATH]\frac{0}{\sqrt{0}} = \frac{0}{0} = 0[/MATH], but then there's the fact that [MATH]\frac{0}{0}[/MATH] is known to be undefined. This is an apparent proof by contradiction that [MATH]\sqrt{0} \ne 0[/MATH].
Far be it from me to be the guy who says that "literally all mathematicians everywhere" are wrong about the square root of zero, so I figure there's something else at play that isn't obvious. Is my [MATH]\frac{0}{0}[/MATH] example committing some sort of fallacy? Are there some special circumstances surrounding the square root of zero that don't apply to non-zero numbers? Is it something that's context-dependent?
... or am I a revolutionary genius on the cusp of a mathematical renaissance, whose likeness will be carved into mountains and whose legacy will live on forever?
It is generally accepted that [MATH]\sqrt{0} = 0[/MATH]. In my experience, it has universally been the case that [MATH]0^2 = 0[/MATH] has been cited as evidence of this claim. The logic is that if square root of some number [MATH]x[/MATH] is defined as the number [MATH]r[/MATH] such that [MATH]r^2 = x[/MATH], then zero is its own square root.
But... I'm not completely sold on that idea. It's a narrow, incomplete view of square root, and the claim doesn't hold up under broader scrutiny...
Square root has another relationship: [MATH]\frac{x}{\sqrt{x}} = \sqrt{x}[/MATH]. If [MATH]\sqrt{0} = 0[/MATH], then it should also be true that [MATH]\frac{0}{\sqrt{0}} = \frac{0}{0} = 0[/MATH], but then there's the fact that [MATH]\frac{0}{0}[/MATH] is known to be undefined. This is an apparent proof by contradiction that [MATH]\sqrt{0} \ne 0[/MATH].
Far be it from me to be the guy who says that "literally all mathematicians everywhere" are wrong about the square root of zero, so I figure there's something else at play that isn't obvious. Is my [MATH]\frac{0}{0}[/MATH] example committing some sort of fallacy? Are there some special circumstances surrounding the square root of zero that don't apply to non-zero numbers? Is it something that's context-dependent?
... or am I a revolutionary genius on the cusp of a mathematical renaissance, whose likeness will be carved into mountains and whose legacy will live on forever?