e^0=e^[(1-a)^x]Hi everyone,
Appreciate if anyone can simplify/rearrange to obtain a as a function of x
(1-a)^x=0.
My solution is as below, can anyone check if this is correct?
e^0=e^(1-a)^x
1=e^(1-a)^x
1=x*e^(1-a)
ln(1/x)=(1-a)
a=1-ln(1/x)
This is one of those problems where you do not need techniques; rather you need to think about fundamentals.
[MATH]a \ne 1 \implies 1 - a \ne 0 \implies (1 - a)^x = 0 \text { under what circumstanes.}[/MATH]
Under no circumstances I think, surely no value of x could make that true?
It will be awesome if there's a simpler solution to this... my background is engineering so I only know how to solve the basic onesActually there is a value of x (and a range of "a" values) that satisfies JeffM's suggestion if we consider \(\displaystyle \lim_{x \to ?}(1-a)^x = 0\) but there's a simpler solution that does not involve limits.
It will be awesome if there's a simpler solution to this... my background is engineering so I only know how to solve the basic ones
Multiplying by zero is illegal - even in the name of squaring!!!What number, when squared, is zero?
Multiplying by zero is illegal - even in the name of squaring!!!
Why would you write that?Multiplying by zero is illegal - even in the name of squaring!!!
Actually, you are ascribing to me a far more sophisticated thought than I was trying to elicit.Actually there is a value of x (and a range of "a" values) that satisfies JeffM's suggestion if we consider \(\displaystyle \lim_{x \to ?}(1-a)^x = 0\) but there's a simpler solution that does not involve limits.
If x>0 then (1-a)x= 0 only when 1-a=0 or a=1.Hi everyone,
Appreciate if anyone can simplify/rearrange to obtain a as a function of x
(1-a)^x=0.
My solution is as below, can anyone check if this is correct?
e^0=e^(1-a)^x
1=e^(1-a)^x
1=x*e^(1-a)
ln(1/x)=(1-a)
a=1-ln(1/x)
Appreciate if anyone can simplify/rearrange to obtain a as a function of x
(1-a)^x=0.
In general, this is true. If [MATH]a = 1[/MATH] specifically, then I believe [MATH]x > 0[/MATH] will work.[... T]here is NO x such that \(\displaystyle (1- a)^x= 0\).
Why would you write that?
This is theorem 1 in my ring theory notes.
\(\displaystyle \forall a\in\mathscr{R}[~a\cdot 0=0=0\cdot a]\) clearly that includes \(\displaystyle 0\cdot 0\)
Really
Please explain, I've not heard of this. My calculator will multiply by zero
There is no need to solve this with logs.You need to "bring down" the exponent, x. Just "moving it to the other side" by taking the "x"th root doesn't help. To "bring down" an exponent, you need to use a logarithm. IF the problem were, say, \(\displaystyle (1- a)^x= 2\) we could say that \(\displaystyle log(1- a)^x= x log(1- a)= log(2)\) so \(\displaystyle x= \frac{log(2)}{log(1- a)}\). The base of the logarithm doesn't matter since it will cancel in division.
However, here, we do have a problem! Log(0) does not exist- the domain of the logarithm function is "all positive numbers" and does not include 0. What that means is that there is NO x such that \(\displaystyle (1- a)^x= 0\). There is no solution to this equation.
So isn't the answer to OP a(x) = 1 if x>0. Where is the problem?There is no need to solve this with logs.
I cannot believe how many are refusing to admit that
[MATH]x > 0 \text { and } a = 1 \implies (1 - a)^x = 0^x = 0 [/MATH]