In general I know how to solve it, here I would just like to close some doubts I have:
Laplace equation -> [imath]\frac{d^2V(x)}{dx^2}[/imath] first doubt here in regards to the notation: why do we mark second derviatives differently in nominator and denominator? In other words why [imath]dx^2[/imath] and not [imath]d^2x[/imath] in denominator.
Next moving forward to the solution [imath]\int{\frac{d^2V(x)}{dx^2}}dx = \int{0}dx[/imath] -> [imath]\int{\frac{dV(x)}{dx}}dx + A = \int{0}[/imath] -> [imath]V(x) + Ax + B = 0[/imath] -> [imath]V(x) = -(Ax + B)[/imath]
My solution differs from the generic on by a sign on the right hand side. It appears to me the generic solution was obtained by expanding constants from [imath]\int{0}dx[/imath] instead. but then what happened to the constants from the left hand side? In my case I abandoned RHS constants as it always evaluates to 0 -> [imath]0 * dx = 0[/imath]. Is it just a preferred solution to get a positive sign on the RHS or mine is incorrect per se?
Thank you.
Laplace equation -> [imath]\frac{d^2V(x)}{dx^2}[/imath] first doubt here in regards to the notation: why do we mark second derviatives differently in nominator and denominator? In other words why [imath]dx^2[/imath] and not [imath]d^2x[/imath] in denominator.
Next moving forward to the solution [imath]\int{\frac{d^2V(x)}{dx^2}}dx = \int{0}dx[/imath] -> [imath]\int{\frac{dV(x)}{dx}}dx + A = \int{0}[/imath] -> [imath]V(x) + Ax + B = 0[/imath] -> [imath]V(x) = -(Ax + B)[/imath]
My solution differs from the generic on by a sign on the right hand side. It appears to me the generic solution was obtained by expanding constants from [imath]\int{0}dx[/imath] instead. but then what happened to the constants from the left hand side? In my case I abandoned RHS constants as it always evaluates to 0 -> [imath]0 * dx = 0[/imath]. Is it just a preferred solution to get a positive sign on the RHS or mine is incorrect per se?
Thank you.