Problem. Prove or disprove that for [imath]f: X \to Y[/imath], with [imath]A \subseteq X[/imath] and [imath]B \subseteq Y[/imath], we have [imath]f(A \cap f^{-1}(B)) \subseteq f(A) \cap B[/imath].
Can someone check if the following proof is correct, please?
Proof. Let [imath]y \in f(A \cap f^{-1}(B))[/imath] be arbitrary. Hence, there exists [imath]x \in A \cap f^{-1}(B)[/imath] such that [imath]y=f(x)[/imath]. This implies that there exists [imath]x \in A[/imath] such that [imath]y=f(x)[/imath] and there exists [imath]x \in f^{-1}(B)[/imath] such that [imath]y=f(x)[/imath]. By definition of image and preimage, this implies that [imath]f(x) \in f(A)[/imath] and that [imath]f(x) \in B[/imath]. Since [imath]y=f(x)[/imath], it follows [imath]y \in f(A) \cap B[/imath].
Can someone check if the following proof is correct, please?
Proof. Let [imath]y \in f(A \cap f^{-1}(B))[/imath] be arbitrary. Hence, there exists [imath]x \in A \cap f^{-1}(B)[/imath] such that [imath]y=f(x)[/imath]. This implies that there exists [imath]x \in A[/imath] such that [imath]y=f(x)[/imath] and there exists [imath]x \in f^{-1}(B)[/imath] such that [imath]y=f(x)[/imath]. By definition of image and preimage, this implies that [imath]f(x) \in f(A)[/imath] and that [imath]f(x) \in B[/imath]. Since [imath]y=f(x)[/imath], it follows [imath]y \in f(A) \cap B[/imath].