J jessebu New member Joined Jan 18, 2010 Messages 13 Jan 18, 2010 #1 The problem is to prove in detail that sin'(pi) = -1, without using the fact that cos (pi) = -1. I've tried a number of approaches but none of them are working for me, unfortunately. Any advice on how to get started would be amazing.
The problem is to prove in detail that sin'(pi) = -1, without using the fact that cos (pi) = -1. I've tried a number of approaches but none of them are working for me, unfortunately. Any advice on how to get started would be amazing.
G galactus Super Moderator Staff member Joined Sep 28, 2005 Messages 7,203 Jan 18, 2010 #2 The derivative is the slope of the line at that point. See if a line with slope -1 is tangent to sin(x) at x=Pi.
The derivative is the slope of the line at that point. See if a line with slope -1 is tangent to sin(x) at x=Pi.
D daon Senior Member Joined Jan 27, 2006 Messages 1,284 Jan 18, 2010 #3 I circumvented the rule \(\displaystyle -1 = -sin(\frac{\pi}{2}) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{cos(\frac{\pi}{2}+h) - cos(\frac{\pi}{2})}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{cos(\frac{\pi}{2}+h)}{h}\) From a know trig identity (or this "lemma"): \(\displaystyle cos(\pi/2+h) = cos(-\pi/2+\pi+h) = cos(-\pi/2)cos(\pi+h)-sin(-\pi/2)sin(\pi+h) = sin(\pi+h)\) So, \(\displaystyle -1 = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{cos(\frac{\pi}{2}+h)}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{sin(\pi+h)}{h}= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{sin(\pi+h)-sin(\pi)}{h} = sin'(\pi)\)
I circumvented the rule \(\displaystyle -1 = -sin(\frac{\pi}{2}) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{cos(\frac{\pi}{2}+h) - cos(\frac{\pi}{2})}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{cos(\frac{\pi}{2}+h)}{h}\) From a know trig identity (or this "lemma"): \(\displaystyle cos(\pi/2+h) = cos(-\pi/2+\pi+h) = cos(-\pi/2)cos(\pi+h)-sin(-\pi/2)sin(\pi+h) = sin(\pi+h)\) So, \(\displaystyle -1 = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{cos(\frac{\pi}{2}+h)}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{sin(\pi+h)}{h}= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{sin(\pi+h)-sin(\pi)}{h} = sin'(\pi)\)