sin(pi)' = -1

jessebu

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Jan 18, 2010
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The problem is to prove in detail that sin'(pi) = -1, without using the fact that cos (pi) = -1.

I've tried a number of approaches but none of them are working for me, unfortunately. Any advice on how to get started would be amazing.
 
The derivative is the slope of the line at that point.

See if a line with slope -1 is tangent to sin(x) at x=Pi.
 
I circumvented the rule ;)

\(\displaystyle -1 = -sin(\frac{\pi}{2}) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{cos(\frac{\pi}{2}+h) - cos(\frac{\pi}{2})}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{cos(\frac{\pi}{2}+h)}{h}\)

From a know trig identity (or this "lemma"): \(\displaystyle cos(\pi/2+h) = cos(-\pi/2+\pi+h) = cos(-\pi/2)cos(\pi+h)-sin(-\pi/2)sin(\pi+h) = sin(\pi+h)\)

So,

\(\displaystyle -1 = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{cos(\frac{\pi}{2}+h)}{h} = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{sin(\pi+h)}{h}= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{sin(\pi+h)-sin(\pi)}{h} = sin'(\pi)\)
 
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