Could someone please help me with this i'm really stuck?
For the 2 congruence equations;
x=a1 mod m1
x=a2 mod m2
Solutions exist iff a1 = a2 mod gcd(m1,m2)
Why is the solution unique modulo (m1.m2/gcd (m1,m2))??
Since if m1 and m2 are coprime the solution is unique mod m1.m2 I guess this would make sence..but i can't figure out how to show it!?
For the 2 congruence equations;
x=a1 mod m1
x=a2 mod m2
Solutions exist iff a1 = a2 mod gcd(m1,m2)
Why is the solution unique modulo (m1.m2/gcd (m1,m2))??
Since if m1 and m2 are coprime the solution is unique mod m1.m2 I guess this would make sence..but i can't figure out how to show it!?