Set notation question: If A = {x∈ℕ: x is even } and B = {x∈ℕ: x is odd }...
If A = {\(\displaystyle x \in \mathbb{N}:\) \(\displaystyle x\) is even } and B = {\(\displaystyle x \in \mathbb{N}:\) \(\displaystyle x\) is odd }
Is it valid to write this as:
A = {\(\displaystyle x \in \mathbb{N}:\exists n \in \mathbb{N}(x=2n) \)}
B = {\(\displaystyle x \in \mathbb{N}: x \in \mathbb{N}\wedge\exists m\in \mathbb{N}(x=2m+1) \)}
\(\displaystyle A \cup B\) = {\(\displaystyle x \in \mathbb{N}:\)\(\displaystyle (\exists n \in \mathbb{N}(x=2n)) \lor ( x \in \mathbb{N}\wedge\exists m\in \mathbb{N}(x=2m+1)) \)}\(\displaystyle =\mathbb{N}\)
\(\displaystyle A \cap B = \) {\(\displaystyle x \in \mathbb{N}:\)\(\displaystyle (\exists n \in \mathbb{N}(x=2n)) \wedge ( x \in \mathbb{N}\wedge\exists m\in \mathbb{N}(x=2m+1)) \)} = \(\displaystyle \varnothing\)
If A = {\(\displaystyle x \in \mathbb{N}:\) \(\displaystyle x\) is even } and B = {\(\displaystyle x \in \mathbb{N}:\) \(\displaystyle x\) is odd }
Is it valid to write this as:
A = {\(\displaystyle x \in \mathbb{N}:\exists n \in \mathbb{N}(x=2n) \)}
B = {\(\displaystyle x \in \mathbb{N}: x \in \mathbb{N}\wedge\exists m\in \mathbb{N}(x=2m+1) \)}
\(\displaystyle A \cup B\) = {\(\displaystyle x \in \mathbb{N}:\)\(\displaystyle (\exists n \in \mathbb{N}(x=2n)) \lor ( x \in \mathbb{N}\wedge\exists m\in \mathbb{N}(x=2m+1)) \)}\(\displaystyle =\mathbb{N}\)
\(\displaystyle A \cap B = \) {\(\displaystyle x \in \mathbb{N}:\)\(\displaystyle (\exists n \in \mathbb{N}(x=2n)) \wedge ( x \in \mathbb{N}\wedge\exists m\in \mathbb{N}(x=2m+1)) \)} = \(\displaystyle \varnothing\)
Last edited: