renegade05
Full Member
- Joined
- Sep 10, 2010
- Messages
- 260
Just a brain fart.... I am working on a proof and need some formatting help.
I have the following: \(\displaystyle \frac{-y}{x^2+y^2}\) Now it's initially given that \(\displaystyle y≠0\)
How can I write that \(\displaystyle x^2+y^2 > 0\) for all x and y, where again \(\displaystyle y≠0\) in set notation?
Something like \(\displaystyle \{x,y: x^2+y^2 > 0, x,y \epsilon \mathbb{R}, y≠0\}\) ??
I don't know... it doesn't look right. how can i make it correct?
Also, how can I write formally for this math proof that since \(\displaystyle x^2+y^2 > 0\) for all x and y, where again \(\displaystyle y≠0\) Then lets say the variable \(\displaystyle z=\frac{-y}{x^2+y^2}\) only depends on the value of y on whether z is positive or negative. Or essentially \(\displaystyle z=-y\) when all we are considered about is the sign. I hope this makes sense. I can I state this elegantly?
I have the following: \(\displaystyle \frac{-y}{x^2+y^2}\) Now it's initially given that \(\displaystyle y≠0\)
How can I write that \(\displaystyle x^2+y^2 > 0\) for all x and y, where again \(\displaystyle y≠0\) in set notation?
Something like \(\displaystyle \{x,y: x^2+y^2 > 0, x,y \epsilon \mathbb{R}, y≠0\}\) ??
I don't know... it doesn't look right. how can i make it correct?
Also, how can I write formally for this math proof that since \(\displaystyle x^2+y^2 > 0\) for all x and y, where again \(\displaystyle y≠0\) Then lets say the variable \(\displaystyle z=\frac{-y}{x^2+y^2}\) only depends on the value of y on whether z is positive or negative. Or essentially \(\displaystyle z=-y\) when all we are considered about is the sign. I hope this makes sense. I can I state this elegantly?