Here's the 'mathy' definition of Rolle's theorem:
"Let f be differentiable on (a,b) and continuous on [a,b]. If f(a)=f(b)=0, then there is at least one point c in (a,b) where f'(c)=0".
What that means is between any two points, a and b, where a curve crosses the x-axis, there is at least one place where the tangent line to the curve is horizontal.
Let me illustrate with a graph. See on the graph the points 2 and 4 where f(x)=0?. Where the graph crosses the x-axis. The theorem says there is at least one point between those 2 points, a=2 and b=4, where a tangent line is horizontal. That is, the slope is 0. In this case, that point is c=3.
The x-axis is horizontal. Well, there is at least one point in that interval where a tangent line is parallel to the x-axis.
See?. It's not complicated. It's just that all the 'Mathspeak' can make it more confusing than it is.