illjay7005
New member
- Joined
- Sep 15, 2009
- Messages
- 4
If n belong to natural #'s, 0<a, 0<b, and a<b
then a^(1?n)<b^(1?n).
I am choosing to use induction.
base case- for n=1, we get a<b, so the claim is true for n=1.
inductive hypothesis- let n=k and assume that a^(1/k)<b^(1/k) for some k. We need to show that for all k, a^(1/k+1)<b^(1/k+1).
this is where i am having some trouble. i think this just comes down to algebraic manipulation, but i cannot see how to get from the assumption to the k+1. I know we know that 0<a, 0<b, and a<b so we know that 0<ab, 0<a+b, and 0<b-a. I tried using differnt manipulations of these to get what i need but could use some pointers if anyone would like to help.
thank you!
then a^(1?n)<b^(1?n).
I am choosing to use induction.
base case- for n=1, we get a<b, so the claim is true for n=1.
inductive hypothesis- let n=k and assume that a^(1/k)<b^(1/k) for some k. We need to show that for all k, a^(1/k+1)<b^(1/k+1).
this is where i am having some trouble. i think this just comes down to algebraic manipulation, but i cannot see how to get from the assumption to the k+1. I know we know that 0<a, 0<b, and a<b so we know that 0<ab, 0<a+b, and 0<b-a. I tried using differnt manipulations of these to get what i need but could use some pointers if anyone would like to help.
thank you!