Hi All,
I'm learning set theory, and I have to answer (true or false to) the following question:
If A={2n|n∈ℕ} then P(A) is equivalent to ℕ.
I understand that according to Cantor's theory, P(X) is always larger than X, and therefore P(X) can't be equivalent to X.
Can we take that a step further to say that P(any infinite set) is larger than all other infinite sets?
TIA!
PS: Please forgive me if this is in the wrong forum, I'm new here.
I'm learning set theory, and I have to answer (true or false to) the following question:
If A={2n|n∈ℕ} then P(A) is equivalent to ℕ.
I understand that according to Cantor's theory, P(X) is always larger than X, and therefore P(X) can't be equivalent to X.
Can we take that a step further to say that P(any infinite set) is larger than all other infinite sets?
TIA!
PS: Please forgive me if this is in the wrong forum, I'm new here.