loadedlongboard
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- Feb 27, 2015
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Hi Guys,
I have a question on the meaning behind IRR and NPV in regards to an investment. Let's say we invest $1,000,000 in Year 0, and have 3 periods with a sale in the 3. We calculate the NPV based on a discount rate of 7%. The NPV is positive. From here, we calculate that the IRR is 12%.
Now if we made the discount rate 12%, then the NPV would equal 0. And then in theory, we are indifferent to investing since the present value of cash flows is essentially the same as our initial investment.
But when I look at this practically, if we really thought the discount rate was 12%, wouldn't that be a great investment? In today's standards that far exceeds anything else offered. Or am I looking at this the wrong way, and really the discount rate used should be comparable to what other like investments are? So if other similar investments are yielding 10%, then this is a good deal. But if other comparable investments are also yielding 12%, then it is not as attractive because you can find others elsewhere?
So my question is when you are solving for the NPV using a specific discount rate, are we evaluating that investment solely using a discount rate matching other comparable investments, and then calculating the IRR? And if the IRR is greater than the NPV, then it is a better investment than the others? Whereas if the discount rate is 12%, and that makes NPV = 0, even though our discount rate (aka desired return) is extremely high at 12%, it is not as good of an investment because the present value of cash flows is just hitting our rate of return.
But would an investment with a positive NPV using a discount rate of 7% always be better than an investment with an NPV of 0 using a discount rate of 12%? We will be getting a better return at 12%. How would you compare those investments? And what makes one investment more attractive then the other?
Thanks!
I have a question on the meaning behind IRR and NPV in regards to an investment. Let's say we invest $1,000,000 in Year 0, and have 3 periods with a sale in the 3. We calculate the NPV based on a discount rate of 7%. The NPV is positive. From here, we calculate that the IRR is 12%.
Now if we made the discount rate 12%, then the NPV would equal 0. And then in theory, we are indifferent to investing since the present value of cash flows is essentially the same as our initial investment.
But when I look at this practically, if we really thought the discount rate was 12%, wouldn't that be a great investment? In today's standards that far exceeds anything else offered. Or am I looking at this the wrong way, and really the discount rate used should be comparable to what other like investments are? So if other similar investments are yielding 10%, then this is a good deal. But if other comparable investments are also yielding 12%, then it is not as attractive because you can find others elsewhere?
So my question is when you are solving for the NPV using a specific discount rate, are we evaluating that investment solely using a discount rate matching other comparable investments, and then calculating the IRR? And if the IRR is greater than the NPV, then it is a better investment than the others? Whereas if the discount rate is 12%, and that makes NPV = 0, even though our discount rate (aka desired return) is extremely high at 12%, it is not as good of an investment because the present value of cash flows is just hitting our rate of return.
But would an investment with a positive NPV using a discount rate of 7% always be better than an investment with an NPV of 0 using a discount rate of 12%? We will be getting a better return at 12%. How would you compare those investments? And what makes one investment more attractive then the other?
Thanks!