Question in real analysis and Lebesgue measure

mondeo

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Mar 20, 2015
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I have the following question and would certainly appreciate any help please : we are given a sigma-finite measure space X and we are given a sequence of measurable functions fn which converge almost everywhere to a function f, we are also given a measurable set of finite measure E in X.

  1. Asks us to prove that on E we have convergence in measure of the fn sequence.
  2. Where I get really stuck: I have the following addition to the question: we are given that for each \epsilon > 0 there exists a K>0 such that for all natural n's we have:

math_image2.jpg

and we are asked to prove the following:
math_image1.jpg
without using dominated or bounded convergence theorem

3. Using what we have done in 1 and 2 we need to prove the dominated convergence theorem in X which is given as sigma finite

Any help would be great
Thanks to all helpers very much
 
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