mooshupork34
Junior Member
- Joined
- Oct 29, 2006
- Messages
- 72
Below I did out an integral (from 0 to infinity)
∫x * e^(-px) dx
u=x, dv=e^(-px), du=1, v=(-1/p)e^(-px)
x*(-1/p)e^(px) - ∫ (-1/p)e^(-px)
I integrated the second integral using parts:
u=-1/p, dv = e^(-px), du = 0, v=(-1/p)e^(-px)
This resulted in a value of (1/p^2)e^(-px)
So the value of ∫x * e^(-px) dx turns out to be:
x*(-1/p)e^(-px) minus (1/p^2)e^(-px)
This factors to (-1/p)e^(-px) (x - (1/p)).
This is my question. According to the back of my book, applying the limits is supposed to give 1/p. Yet I'm getting 1/p^2 here. Is there an error in my calculations?
∫x * e^(-px) dx
u=x, dv=e^(-px), du=1, v=(-1/p)e^(-px)
x*(-1/p)e^(px) - ∫ (-1/p)e^(-px)
I integrated the second integral using parts:
u=-1/p, dv = e^(-px), du = 0, v=(-1/p)e^(-px)
This resulted in a value of (1/p^2)e^(-px)
So the value of ∫x * e^(-px) dx turns out to be:
x*(-1/p)e^(-px) minus (1/p^2)e^(-px)
This factors to (-1/p)e^(-px) (x - (1/p)).
This is my question. According to the back of my book, applying the limits is supposed to give 1/p. Yet I'm getting 1/p^2 here. Is there an error in my calculations?