Q on Abstract algebra (2): Let G = {g1, g2, ..., gn} be a finite abelian group....

[MathStruggle]

Let G = {g1, g2, ..., gn} be a finite abelian group. Prove that (g1 ... gn) ^2 = 1.

 

[stapel]

Let G = {g1, g2, ..., gn} be a finite abelian group. Prove that (g1 ... gn) ^2 = 1.

What are your thoughts? What have you tried? How far have you gotten? Where are you stuck?

Please be complete. Thank you!