Greetings:
I have seen the proofs of log(uv) = log(u) + log(v), etc., in several texts and each reverts to substitution (as I am confident you are familiar). Why can we not prove the case above (for base, b) by simply saying, b^[log(u) + log(v)] = b^log(u) * b^log(v) = uv. Hence log(uv) = log(u) + log(v). ??
By substitution, the same property is typically proved as follows: Let w = log u and z = log v. Then b^w = u and b^z = v and so log(uv) = etc.
It just seems to me that the whole substitution routine is unnecessary.
What do you think?
Thanks
Rich
I have seen the proofs of log(uv) = log(u) + log(v), etc., in several texts and each reverts to substitution (as I am confident you are familiar). Why can we not prove the case above (for base, b) by simply saying, b^[log(u) + log(v)] = b^log(u) * b^log(v) = uv. Hence log(uv) = log(u) + log(v). ??
By substitution, the same property is typically proved as follows: Let w = log u and z = log v. Then b^w = u and b^z = v and so log(uv) = etc.
It just seems to me that the whole substitution routine is unnecessary.
What do you think?
Thanks
Rich