I did not try to quote the question. It is so confused the way it has been written.
The statement is incorrect. The so called 'proof' is confused beyond belief.
Here is the correct statement:
If each of \(\displaystyle \mathfrak{G}~\&~\mathfrak{H}\) and \(\displaystyle \phi:\mathfrak{G}\to\mathfrak{H}\) is a homomomrphism then \(\displaystyle \mathfrak{ker}(\phi)\) is a subgroup of \(\displaystyle \mathfrak{G}\).
The proof is simple, three lines at most. Show that if \(\displaystyle \{a,b\}\subset\mathfrak{ker}(\phi)\) then \(\displaystyle a\,b^{-1}\in\mathfrak{ker}(\phi)\).