Prove that if a function is nonnegative on an interval, so is its definite integral

Meow12

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If [imath]f(x)\ge 0[/imath] on [imath][a,\ b][/imath], then prove that [imath]\int_a^b f(x)dx\ge 0[/imath].

My attempt:

Case 1: [imath]f(x)=0[/imath] on [imath][a,\ b][/imath].

[imath]G(x)=0\forall x\in [a,\ b][/imath] is an antiderivative of [imath]f(x)[/imath] on [imath][a,\ b][/imath].

[imath]\int_a^b f(x)dx=G(a)-G(b)=0-0=0[/imath]

Case 2: [imath]f'(x)>0[/imath] on [imath][a,\ b][/imath].

Let [imath]G(x)[/imath] be an antiderivative of [imath]f(x)[/imath] on [imath][a,\ b][/imath].

[imath]G'(x)=f(x)>0[/imath] on [imath][a,\ b][/imath].

So, [imath]G[/imath] is increasing on [imath][a,\ b][/imath].

Since [imath]a<b[/imath], [imath]G(a)<G(b)[/imath].

[imath]\implies\int_a^b f(x)dx=G(b)-G(a)>0[/imath]
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Thus, in both cases, [imath]\int_a^b f(x)dx\ge 0[/imath].

Does this look right?
 
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Looks good to me. But I'd try transforming Case 2 by replacing [imath]>[/imath] with [imath]\geq[/imath]. This way you don't need to consider Case 1.
 
Looks good to me. But I'd try transforming Case 2 by replacing [imath]>[/imath] with [imath]\geq[/imath]. This way you don't need to consider Case 1.

Thanks!

The criterion for an increasing function is [imath]G'(x)>0[/imath], not [imath]G'(x)\ge 0[/imath]; that's why I had to consider two cases.
 
I have a few problems with your case 1. Luckily most of your mistakes were actually ok. For example 0 -0 =0 - 0
\(\displaystyle \int_{a}^{b}{f(x)dx}= G(b)-G(a) = 0-0=0\). You wrote G(a)-G(b)

You said that an antiderivative of 0 is 0 which is true. Then you went on assuming that 0 is the only antiderivative of 0. This is NOT true! \(\displaystyle \int{0 dx} = C\), where C is any constant!

Case 2: Consider the line f(x)=2x. Clearly its derivative f'(x)=2x > 0 for all x.
Now consider the case where we restrict the interval to [-8, -2]. Note that f(x) <0 for all x in [-8,-2] while f'(x)>0 for all x in (-8,-2). This shows that what you are saying is not true at all--sorry.


Why does the two cases cover everything? Looking at case 1 is good!
However, f'(x)>0 is always true whenever f(x)>0 is NOT true at all.
Consider f(x) = x^2 + 1. This function is ALWAYS positive. Now note, that its derivative, f'(x)=2x, is NEGATIVE if x<0.

You need to see the following clearly. Knowing the sign of f(x) (that is if f(x)>0 or f(x)<0) does NOT tell you any information about whether f'(x)>0 or f'(x)<0. Similarly, knowing the sign of f'(x) tell you nothing about the sign of f(x). Please post back with graphs showing this. You really have to understand this!
 
Did you mean to write Case 2: f′(x)>0[a, b] or Case 2: f(x)>0[a, b]??
If writing f'(x) was a typo for f(x), then your proof is fine. That little dash makes a major difference!
 
Did you mean to write Case 2: f′(x)>0[a, b] or Case 2: f(x)>0[a, b]??
If writing f'(x) was a typo for f(x), then your proof is fine. That little dash makes a major difference!

Yeah, that was a typo. Sorry.
 
I have a few problems with your case 1. Luckily most of your mistakes were actually ok. For example 0 -0 =0 - 0
\(\displaystyle \int_{a}^{b}{f(x)dx}= G(b)-G(a) = 0-0=0\). You wrote G(a)-G(b)

You said that an antiderivative of 0 is 0 which is true. Then you went on assuming that 0 is the only antiderivative of 0. This is NOT true! \(\displaystyle \int{0 dx} = C\), where C is any constant!

In evaluating a definite integral, isn't it sufficient to find just one antiderivative?

For example, [imath]\int_0^1 3x^2 dx=[x^3+2]_0^1=3-2=1[/imath] where [imath]x^3+2[/imath] is one antiderivative of [imath]3x^2[/imath].
 
In evaluating a definite integral, isn't it sufficient to find just one antiderivative?

For example, [imath]\int_0^1 3x^2 dx=[x^3+2]_0^1=3-2=1[/imath] where [imath]x^3+2[/imath] is one antiderivative of [imath]3x^2[/imath].
That is a very good point! Good work!
 
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