prove that (a + b)p^k = ap^k + bp^k - does this make sense?

[jwpaine]

I was helping my friend on pre-calculus and he had this problem:

Let P be a prime number, prove that (a + b)p^k = ap^k + bp^k

Let me know.
Thanks - John

 

[royhaas]

What you have written is true because of the distributive law.

 

[jwpaine]

Yes, but why would the problem say "let p be a prime number" and not from the set of all reals? And how would you go about "showing" that this is true? :shock:

 

[stapel]

Yes, but why would the problem say "let p be a prime number" and not from the set of all reals?

Dunno. Is this maybe part of a larger exercise, and the primality bit will become important later?

And how would you go about "showing" that this is true?

"This follows immediately from the Distributive Law". :wink:

Eliz.

 

[jwpaine]

Re:

Yes, but why would the problem say "let p be a prime number" and not from the set of all reals?

Dunno. Is this maybe part of a larger exercise, and the primality bit will become important later?

And how would you go about "showing" that this is true?

"This follows immediately from the Distributive Law". :wink:

Eliz.

Hehe. Apparently it was a "Bonus" problem that his professor gave him - seems a bit pointless to me. I'll hook him up with an exercise from Spivak, instead - the first chapter on "numbers of various sorts"
Cheers,

John