prove S is a surface

logistic_guy

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Apr 17, 2024
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109
here is the question

Prove that \(\displaystyle S: (x^2 + y^2)^2 + 3z^2 = 1\) is a surface.

Definition

if i take gradient of the function and set it to zero i get \(\displaystyle x = y = z = 0\). do this proof it is surface? if yes i don't see how. if no, how to proof?
 
if i take gradient of the function and set it to zero i get x=y=z=0\displaystyle x = y = z = 0x=y=z=0. do this proof it is surface? if yes i don't see how. if no, how to proof?
The point you found is the only point with zero gradient, but that point does not belong to [imath]S[/imath]. I.e., the gradient is non-zero on [imath]S[/imath]. I believe this is sufficient for [imath]S[/imath] to be a smooth surface. Here is a sketch of a proof: for any given point [imath]p[/imath] on [imath]S[/imath] there exists a tangent plane (because the gradient is non-zero). For some small neighborhood [imath]U\subset S[/imath] of [imath]p[/imath] a projection of [imath]U[/imath] on the tangent plane will be a smooth map.
More rigorous proof would probably use the implicit function theorem.
 
The point you found is the only point with zero gradient, but that point does not belong to [imath]S[/imath]. I.e., the gradient is non-zero on [imath]S[/imath]. I believe this is sufficient for [imath]S[/imath] to be a smooth surface. Here is a sketch of a proof: for any given point [imath]p[/imath] on [imath]S[/imath] there exists a tangent plane (because the gradient is non-zero). For some small neighborhood [imath]U\subset S[/imath] of [imath]p[/imath] a projection of [imath]U[/imath] on the tangent plane will be a smooth map.
More rigorous proof would probably use the implicit function theorem.
thank blamocur. i think i'm understand now
 
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