Why is this in algebra?f(x)= (2x-1)/(x-2) is differentiable at 1, andfind f ' (1).
Please any help with this question woud be fantastic! I understand that the quotient theory goes something like
Q(h) = (f(x +h) -f(x))/h
If you take the limit as h-->0 of the formula you called Q(h), then you will have the definition of "derivative".f(x)= (2x-1)/(x-2) is differentiable at 1, and find f ' (1).
Please any help with this question woud be fantastic! I understand that the quotient theory goes something like
Q(h) = (f(x+h) -f(x))/h
Double post.Prove from the definiton of differentiability that the functionf(x)= (2x-1)/(x-2) is differentiable at 1, andfind f ' (1).
Please any help with this question woud be fantastic! I understand that the quotient theory goes something like
Q(h) = (f(x +h) -f(x))/h or am i completely wrong?
It helps us and you if you read Read Before Posting before posting.I was advised that my previous question was in the wrong category, so have moved it. I thought this forum was called freemathHELP, not one word useless answers. Sorry i am new to this forum and may not know the correct way to post, but help woul be appreciated.
I see no one word answers, and certainly no "one word useless answers".I was advised that my previous question was in the wrong category, so have moved it. I thought this forum was called freemathHELP, not one word useless answers. Sorry i am new to this forum and may not know the correct way to post, but help woul be appreciated.