We can't tell if you're missing something until you post your work and reasoning. So please be complete. Thank you!I have tried going through all the inner product space proofs for this question and the condition still holds, am I missing something?
Uh, wouldn't that equal 0? Doesn't the condition still hold?Let \(\displaystyle u = \left\langle {1,0,0} \right\rangle \) then \(\displaystyle \left\langle u,u \right\rangle=~? \).
What is wrong with that???
What "condition" are you talking about? This one: For any vector, v, \(\displaystyle <v, v>\ge 0\) and is equal to 0 only if v= 0?Uh, wouldn't that equal 0? Doesn't the condition still hold?
Ohhhhh, I thought it had to be greater than or equal to 0 regardless of the value of v, it makes sense now thank you so much guys. I apologise if I seemed like a noob (I kind of am anyway).What "condition" are you talking about? This one: For any vector, v, \(\displaystyle <v, v>\ge 0\) and is equal to 0 only if v= 0?
Uh, wouldn't that equal 0? Doesn't the condition still hold?
yep, thanks I get it nowIn any inner product space it must be true that \(\displaystyle \left\langle u,u \right\rangle=0 \) if and only if \(\displaystyle u = 0\).
You are not showing any attempt to do these yourself. Surely whoever gave you this problem expects you to know:also can someone help with this?View attachment 4117