Proof of inner spaces

bonappler

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I have tried going through all the inner product space proofs for this question and the condition still holds, am I missing something?
 

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Let \(\displaystyle u = \left\langle {1,0,0} \right\rangle \) then \(\displaystyle \left\langle u,u \right\rangle=~? \).

What is wrong with that???
 
I have tried going through all the inner product space proofs for this question and the condition still holds, am I missing something?
We can't tell if you're missing something until you post your work and reasoning. So please be complete. Thank you! ;)
 
Let \(\displaystyle u = \left\langle {1,0,0} \right\rangle \) then \(\displaystyle \left\langle u,u \right\rangle=~? \).

What is wrong with that???
Uh, wouldn't that equal 0? Doesn't the condition still hold?
 
What "condition" are you talking about? This one: For any vector, v, \(\displaystyle <v, v>\ge 0\) and is equal to 0 only if v= 0?
Ohhhhh, I thought it had to be greater than or equal to 0 regardless of the value of v, it makes sense now thank you so much guys. I apologise if I seemed like a noob (I kind of am anyway).
 
Uh, wouldn't that equal 0? Doesn't the condition still hold?

In any inner product space it must be true that \(\displaystyle \left\langle u,u \right\rangle=0 \) if and only if \(\displaystyle u = 0\).
 
also can someone help with this?View attachment 4117
You are not showing any attempt to do these yourself. Surely whoever gave you this problem expects you to know:
To find the matrix representation of a linear transformation, apply the transformation to each of the basis vectors in turn, writing the result as a linear combination of the basis vectors. The coefficients give the columns of the matrix.
 
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