Let's say I have a 3 and a 2... I take 3 cards of the remaining 50. What is the chance of drawing a straight (5 cards that follow)?
I'd be tempted to say:
(4*4*4 * 3) / 50C3 = 0.0098 or 0.98%
Let's say I have a 3 and a 2... I take 3 cards of the remaining 50. What is the chance of having a straight-draw (4 cards that follow)?
I'd be tempted to say:
(4*4*44 * 3) / 50C3 = 0.1078 or about 10%
[Question:]
-> Are the above calculations right?
-> However about straights: what confuses me here is: Let's say I have J-10, then I have 4 possible straights (10-J-Q-K-A; 9-10-J-Q-K; 8-9-10-J-Q and 7-8-9-10-J). If I have J-9 however, I have only 3 possible straights (7-8-9-10-J; 8-9-10-J-Q; 9-10-J-Q-K) so my odds would drop... but this does not seem to be included in the calculations I suggested... Do you happen to know what I am overlooking here?
I'd be tempted to say:
(4*4*4 * 3) / 50C3 = 0.0098 or 0.98%
Let's say I have a 3 and a 2... I take 3 cards of the remaining 50. What is the chance of having a straight-draw (4 cards that follow)?
I'd be tempted to say:
(4*4*44 * 3) / 50C3 = 0.1078 or about 10%
[Question:]
-> Are the above calculations right?
-> However about straights: what confuses me here is: Let's say I have J-10, then I have 4 possible straights (10-J-Q-K-A; 9-10-J-Q-K; 8-9-10-J-Q and 7-8-9-10-J). If I have J-9 however, I have only 3 possible straights (7-8-9-10-J; 8-9-10-J-Q; 9-10-J-Q-K) so my odds would drop... but this does not seem to be included in the calculations I suggested... Do you happen to know what I am overlooking here?