Problem.
Let [imath]f(x)[/imath] be a polynomial with real coefficients such that [imath]f(x)>0[/imath] for all real [imath]x[/imath]. Prove that there are real polynomials [imath]p(x)[/imath] and [imath]q(x)[/imath] such that [imath]f(x)=p^2(x)+q^2(x)[/imath]
My solution attempt:
The polynomial has no real roots since [imath]f(x)>0[/imath] for all real x. Suppose [imath]f(x)[/imath] has corresponding complex roots and count them as pairs
[math]z_1,\bar{z_1},...,z_l,\bar{z_1}[/math] And clearly [imath]deg f=2l[/imath] in this case. Now suppose [imath]z_j=a_j+ib_j[/imath] for [imath]j=1,...,l.[/imath] Then by the fundamental theorem of algebra
[imath]f(x)[/imath]
[math]f(x)=a_n(x-z_1)(x-\bar{z_1})\cdot\cdot\cdot(x-z_l)(x-\bar{z_l})[/math][math]f(x)=a_n(x^2-(z_1+\bar{z_1})x+z_1\bar{z_1})\cdot\cdot\cdot(x^2-(z_l+\bar{z_l})x+z_l\bar{z_l})[/math][math]f(x)=a_n(x^2-2a_1x+a_1^2+b_1^2)\cdot\cdot\cdot(x^2-2a_lx+a_l^2+b_l^2)[/math]
Hence [imath]f(x)[/imath] can be prime factored into real second-degree polynomials of the form
[math]f(x)=a_n\prod_{j=1}^{l}(x-a_j)^2+b_j^2[/math]
And we notice that each term is always positive because it's a sum of squares, therefore [imath]f(x)>0[/imath] provided [imath]a_n>0[/imath]. However, there remains to prove that the expansion of this expression can be written as [imath]p^2(x)+q^2(x)[/imath] and I'm not sure how to continue.
Let [imath]f(x)[/imath] be a polynomial with real coefficients such that [imath]f(x)>0[/imath] for all real [imath]x[/imath]. Prove that there are real polynomials [imath]p(x)[/imath] and [imath]q(x)[/imath] such that [imath]f(x)=p^2(x)+q^2(x)[/imath]
My solution attempt:
The polynomial has no real roots since [imath]f(x)>0[/imath] for all real x. Suppose [imath]f(x)[/imath] has corresponding complex roots and count them as pairs
[math]z_1,\bar{z_1},...,z_l,\bar{z_1}[/math] And clearly [imath]deg f=2l[/imath] in this case. Now suppose [imath]z_j=a_j+ib_j[/imath] for [imath]j=1,...,l.[/imath] Then by the fundamental theorem of algebra
[imath]f(x)[/imath]
[math]f(x)=a_n(x-z_1)(x-\bar{z_1})\cdot\cdot\cdot(x-z_l)(x-\bar{z_l})[/math][math]f(x)=a_n(x^2-(z_1+\bar{z_1})x+z_1\bar{z_1})\cdot\cdot\cdot(x^2-(z_l+\bar{z_l})x+z_l\bar{z_l})[/math][math]f(x)=a_n(x^2-2a_1x+a_1^2+b_1^2)\cdot\cdot\cdot(x^2-2a_lx+a_l^2+b_l^2)[/math]
Hence [imath]f(x)[/imath] can be prime factored into real second-degree polynomials of the form
[math]f(x)=a_n\prod_{j=1}^{l}(x-a_j)^2+b_j^2[/math]
And we notice that each term is always positive because it's a sum of squares, therefore [imath]f(x)>0[/imath] provided [imath]a_n>0[/imath]. However, there remains to prove that the expansion of this expression can be written as [imath]p^2(x)+q^2(x)[/imath] and I'm not sure how to continue.