Task says the following: If [imath]G[/imath] is a group in which [imath](a\cdot b)^i=a^i \cdot b^i[/imath] for three consecutive integers [imath]i[/imath] for all [imath]a, b \in G[/imath] show that [imath]G[/imath] is abelian.
This is my proof: first I want to show that there is no need to consider cases where one of [imath]i[/imath] is negative. We have [math](a\cdot b)^{-k}=a^{-k} \cdot b^{-k}[/math] [math](a \cdot b)^k=(a^{-k} \cdot b^{-k})^{-1}=(b^{-k})^{-1} \cdot (a^{-k})^{-1}=b^k \cdot a^k.[/math] Then, by multiplying by [imath]b[/imath] on the left and by [imath]a[/imath] on the right [math]b \cdot (a \cdot b)^k \cdot a=b^{k+1} \cdot a^{k+1}[/math] and regrouping the terms [math]b \cdot (a \cdot b)^k \cdot a=b \cdot(a\cdot b) \cdot ... \cdot(a \cdot b) \cdot a=(b\cdot a) \cdot (b \cdot a) \cdot ... \cdot (b \cdot a)=(b \cdot a)^{k+1}[/math] we have [math](b \cdot a)^{k+1}=b^{k+1} \cdot a^{k+1}.[/math] So, we now have exactly the same (just with changed labels) relation but with a positive exponent [imath]k+1[/imath]. Before moving on, I only need to mention that relation [imath](a \cdot b)^m=a^m \cdot b^m[/imath] implies [imath](b \cdot a)^{m-1}=a^{m-1} \cdot b^{m-1}[/imath], since [math](a \cdot b)^m=a^m \cdot b^m[/math] [math](a \cdot b) \cdot ... \cdot (a \cdot b)=a^m \cdot b^m[/math] canceling [imath]a[/imath] from the left and [imath]b[/imath] from the right and regrouping the terms we have [math](b \cdot a)^{m-1} =a^{m-1} \cdot b^{m-1}.[/math] Now, let n denote the smallest of the successive integers. Relations [imath](a \cdot b)^{n+1}= a^{n+1} \cdot b^{n+1}[/imath] and [imath](a \cdot b)^{n+2}= a^{n+2} \cdot b^{n+2}[/imath] imply [imath](b \cdot a)^{n} =a^{n} \cdot b^{n}[/imath] and [imath](b \cdot a)^{n+1} =a^{n+1} \cdot b^{n+1}[/imath] respectively. With that, I conclude [math](a \cdot b)^{n+1}=a^{n+1} \cdot b^{n+1}=(b \cdot a)^{n+1}[/math] [math](a \cdot b) \cdot (a \cdot b)^n=(b \cdot a) \cdot (b \cdot a)^n. [/math] Because [imath](b \cdot a)^{n} =a^{n} \cdot b^{n}= (a \cdot b)^n[/imath] I can cancel it from the right to get [imath]a \cdot b = b \cdot a[/imath] which means that [imath]G[/imath] is abelian. Q.E.D.
I kindly ask if somebody could tell me if this proof is correct. I also would like to know how you check your own prooves when you need to since I don't want to flood this forum with my posts. Thank you for reading.
This is my proof: first I want to show that there is no need to consider cases where one of [imath]i[/imath] is negative. We have [math](a\cdot b)^{-k}=a^{-k} \cdot b^{-k}[/math] [math](a \cdot b)^k=(a^{-k} \cdot b^{-k})^{-1}=(b^{-k})^{-1} \cdot (a^{-k})^{-1}=b^k \cdot a^k.[/math] Then, by multiplying by [imath]b[/imath] on the left and by [imath]a[/imath] on the right [math]b \cdot (a \cdot b)^k \cdot a=b^{k+1} \cdot a^{k+1}[/math] and regrouping the terms [math]b \cdot (a \cdot b)^k \cdot a=b \cdot(a\cdot b) \cdot ... \cdot(a \cdot b) \cdot a=(b\cdot a) \cdot (b \cdot a) \cdot ... \cdot (b \cdot a)=(b \cdot a)^{k+1}[/math] we have [math](b \cdot a)^{k+1}=b^{k+1} \cdot a^{k+1}.[/math] So, we now have exactly the same (just with changed labels) relation but with a positive exponent [imath]k+1[/imath]. Before moving on, I only need to mention that relation [imath](a \cdot b)^m=a^m \cdot b^m[/imath] implies [imath](b \cdot a)^{m-1}=a^{m-1} \cdot b^{m-1}[/imath], since [math](a \cdot b)^m=a^m \cdot b^m[/math] [math](a \cdot b) \cdot ... \cdot (a \cdot b)=a^m \cdot b^m[/math] canceling [imath]a[/imath] from the left and [imath]b[/imath] from the right and regrouping the terms we have [math](b \cdot a)^{m-1} =a^{m-1} \cdot b^{m-1}.[/math] Now, let n denote the smallest of the successive integers. Relations [imath](a \cdot b)^{n+1}= a^{n+1} \cdot b^{n+1}[/imath] and [imath](a \cdot b)^{n+2}= a^{n+2} \cdot b^{n+2}[/imath] imply [imath](b \cdot a)^{n} =a^{n} \cdot b^{n}[/imath] and [imath](b \cdot a)^{n+1} =a^{n+1} \cdot b^{n+1}[/imath] respectively. With that, I conclude [math](a \cdot b)^{n+1}=a^{n+1} \cdot b^{n+1}=(b \cdot a)^{n+1}[/math] [math](a \cdot b) \cdot (a \cdot b)^n=(b \cdot a) \cdot (b \cdot a)^n. [/math] Because [imath](b \cdot a)^{n} =a^{n} \cdot b^{n}= (a \cdot b)^n[/imath] I can cancel it from the right to get [imath]a \cdot b = b \cdot a[/imath] which means that [imath]G[/imath] is abelian. Q.E.D.
I kindly ask if somebody could tell me if this proof is correct. I also would like to know how you check your own prooves when you need to since I don't want to flood this forum with my posts. Thank you for reading.