\(\displaystyle \text{For real value of }y\text{ is }\,(y+16)x^2 - 4(y+1)x - \dfrac{y^2-128}{4}\,\text{ a perfect square?}\)
Huh? Is that the FULL original problem?
For now, the expression is a perfect square in infinite cases; like:
x=0, y=12 : 4
x=0, y=18 :49
x=1, y=36 : 196
x=2, y=6 : 9