One difficulty is that the formula for the projection is wrong. It should be that the "projection of p(x) on q(x)" is given by \(\displaystyle \frac{p(x)\int_0^1 p(y)q(y)dy}{\int_0^1 p^2(z) dz}\) (the denominator is the "inner product of p with itself").i would like to get help on this question please, open the attached pics, i do not even understand the question it self !?