only for negetive values??

[sujoy]

this is also my own difficulty
there is a possible proof....you may correct me if I am going wrong.... that the value of log 1 =0 for any base
It is as :
[[let me denote infinity by the symbol*~*]]
10^~=~ ====> 1/[10]^~ = 1/~=0
thus [10]^{-1*~}=0
so -1*~= log_10[0],
my question is; is it only true for negetive values..else why only negetive infinity???
Regards
Sujoy

 

[Euler]

What makes log1=0 is simply the fact that

X=b^y is equivalent to y = log_bX

and therefore…

1=b⁰is equivalent to 0 = log_b1

I don't think there is really any possible proof that can be composed for this, since it basically rests on how logarithms are defined.

 

[Gene]

There is no such thing as the log of a negative number.
------------------
Gene

 

[sujoy]

Thank you
Regards
Sujoy