creative22
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- Joined
- Jan 16, 2011
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The question is: Consider the ODE y'(x)+ay(x)=g(x), where a denotes a positive constant, and g contained in C(0, +infinity), Suppose futher that g->b > 0 as x->+infinity. Show that any solution, say phi, of the ODE, has the property that phi->b/a as x-> +infinity.
Hint: Start by finding the general solution of the given equation. Note L'Hopital's rule can be used to simplify the reasoning.
We were giving the hint to use the equation
phi(x)=e^(integral from x0 to x (P(t)dt)) * {const + integral (x0 to x) e^ (-integral (x to t) P(s) ds) * q(t) dt } Assuming p,q are constant in (0, +infinity) and phi(x) is constant.
I tried changing the variables of the equation in the hint to make it work for the one in the problem. However, I haven't progressed very far in finding the general solution to the differential equation. Honestly, I am not sure where to begin with this problem. Any advice and guidance on starting the problem would be great. Thanks.
Hint: Start by finding the general solution of the given equation. Note L'Hopital's rule can be used to simplify the reasoning.
We were giving the hint to use the equation
phi(x)=e^(integral from x0 to x (P(t)dt)) * {const + integral (x0 to x) e^ (-integral (x to t) P(s) ds) * q(t) dt } Assuming p,q are constant in (0, +infinity) and phi(x) is constant.
I tried changing the variables of the equation in the hint to make it work for the one in the problem. However, I haven't progressed very far in finding the general solution to the differential equation. Honestly, I am not sure where to begin with this problem. Any advice and guidance on starting the problem would be great. Thanks.