number theory - is this a valid assertion? mn(m+n)(m-n)≡0 mod 6

math_fan

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Jan 6, 2014
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Given that I can prove \(\displaystyle mn(m+n)(m-n)≡0\ mod\ 6\)

I have a further value \(\displaystyle 4k^2 mn(m+n)(m-n)\)

Would I be correct in asserting that \(\displaystyle 4k^2 mn(m+n)(m-n)≡0\ mod\ 24k^2\)

Thanks
 
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