MathNugget
Junior Member
- Joined
- Feb 1, 2024
- Messages
- 195
The question is basically the title. It's from Algebraic Number Theory, by Alaca and Williams. They use the Legendre symbol to say the same thing. I cannot seem to find it on the internet (I bet it is somewhere, but since they're probably written in Latex, it's hard to search for it)
Firstly, I'll work on "[imath]\Rightarrow[/imath]" (direct implication)
[imath]x^2\equiv -1 \Leftrightarrow x^2\equiv p-1 \Leftrightarrow p \mid x^2-p+1[/imath] (equivalences mod p)
Say [imath]x \in \mathbb{Z}_p[/imath], then [imath]x^2-p+1 \in \{-p+1, ... , p^2-p+1 \}[/imath]. Then since [imath]p \mid x^2-p+1 \Rightarrow x^2-p+1 \in \{0, p \}[/imath].
[imath]x^2-p+1=0[/imath] then [imath]\Delta=4(p-1)[/imath] and we notice p-1 can't be a square if [imath]p \equiv 3[/imath] (mod 4) since all squares mod 4 are 0 or 1...
Similarly if [imath]x^2-p+1=p[/imath] then [imath]\Delta=4(2p-1)[/imath] and we notice if [imath]p \equiv 3[/imath] (mod 4) then [imath]\Delta=4(2(4k+3)-1)=4(8k+5)[/imath] and there are no squares equivalent to 5 mod 8...
But on the other side, the task seems very hard to solve. I am familiar with some very basic tactics of number theory.
I was hoping that maybe I can prove that [imath]\forall i, j \in \mathbb{Z}_p[/imath], [imath]i^2\equiv j^2 \Leftrightarrow i=j[/imath], but it only happens on [imath]i, j \in \{0, ..., \frac{p-1}{2}\}[/imath]. So, in fact, only half of the numbers of [imath]\mathbb{Z}_p[/imath] are quadratic residues ... and I am trying to prove p-1 is one of those quadratic residues.
Any advice?
Firstly, I'll work on "[imath]\Rightarrow[/imath]" (direct implication)
[imath]x^2\equiv -1 \Leftrightarrow x^2\equiv p-1 \Leftrightarrow p \mid x^2-p+1[/imath] (equivalences mod p)
Say [imath]x \in \mathbb{Z}_p[/imath], then [imath]x^2-p+1 \in \{-p+1, ... , p^2-p+1 \}[/imath]. Then since [imath]p \mid x^2-p+1 \Rightarrow x^2-p+1 \in \{0, p \}[/imath].
[imath]x^2-p+1=0[/imath] then [imath]\Delta=4(p-1)[/imath] and we notice p-1 can't be a square if [imath]p \equiv 3[/imath] (mod 4) since all squares mod 4 are 0 or 1...
Similarly if [imath]x^2-p+1=p[/imath] then [imath]\Delta=4(2p-1)[/imath] and we notice if [imath]p \equiv 3[/imath] (mod 4) then [imath]\Delta=4(2(4k+3)-1)=4(8k+5)[/imath] and there are no squares equivalent to 5 mod 8...
But on the other side, the task seems very hard to solve. I am familiar with some very basic tactics of number theory.
I was hoping that maybe I can prove that [imath]\forall i, j \in \mathbb{Z}_p[/imath], [imath]i^2\equiv j^2 \Leftrightarrow i=j[/imath], but it only happens on [imath]i, j \in \{0, ..., \frac{p-1}{2}\}[/imath]. So, in fact, only half of the numbers of [imath]\mathbb{Z}_p[/imath] are quadratic residues ... and I am trying to prove p-1 is one of those quadratic residues.
Any advice?