benjaminthelight
New member
- Joined
- Nov 6, 2009
- Messages
- 3
How could i solve the following definite integral of a function f(x)=x^n*(k1+k2*x)^(-n-2)ln(1+x) given that the lower limit is 0 and the upper limit is positive infinity?
\(\displaystyle \int_0^{infty}x^n(k_1+k_2x)^{-n-2}ln(1+x)dx\) for positive constants n, K1 and K2
\(\displaystyle \int_0^{infty}x^n(k_1+k_2x)^{-n-2}ln(1+x)dx\) for positive constants n, K1 and K2