lim (x,y) approaches (1,0) y^2*ln(x)/((x-1)^2+y^2).
substitute y = rsinθ, x = 1 + rcosθ.
Now when (x,y)-> (1,0) r->0
lim r->0 (r2sin2(θ)*ln(1+rcosθ)) / ((r2(cos2θ + sin2θ). I know that (cos2θ + sin2θ) = 1
so
. (r2sin2(θ)*ln(1+rcosθ)) / ((r2(1))
simplify
(sin2(θ)*ln(1+rcosθ))
Okay now i´m stuck. Where should i go with this? Am i supposed to use the squeeze theorem maybe?
Edit: I realized i have made some errors, and i corrected them. So
(sin2(θ)*ln(1+rcosθ)) = (sin2(θ)*ln(1+0)) when r->0
So now we have a limited function times a function equal to zero => f = 0.
Am i right?