[MOVED] why is 1/x + 1/x^2 = x^2/(1 - x)

unregistered

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Sep 29, 2006
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I know that there are some steadfast rules that I forgot about for why:

imageat5.jpg


I totally forgot this,

Thanks.
 
On what basis do you believe that \(\displaystyle \L \frac{1}{x}\,+\,\frac{1}{x^2}\), which simplifies as \(\displaystyle \L \frac{x\,+\,1}{x^2}\), is equal to \(\displaystyle \L \frac{x^2}{1\,-\,x}\)? They don't even have the same domains.

Please reply with clarification. Thank you.

Eliz.
 
Oh no, I need to go back a step or 2 or 18, why does it simplify to
imagexk8.jpg


That is why I posted this in arithmetic b/c I forgot the simple stuff.
 
unregistered said:
Oh no, I need to go back a step or 2 or 18, why does it simplify to
imagexk8.jpg


That is why I posted this in arithmetic b/c I forgot the simple stuff.

\(\displaystyle \L \frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{x^2} =\)

common denominator is \(\displaystyle \L x^2\) ...

\(\displaystyle \L \frac{x}{x^2} + \frac{1}{x^2} = \frac{x+1}{x^2}\)
 
\(\displaystyle \L \frac{1}{x} \cdot \frac{x}{x} = \frac{1 \cdot x}{x \cdot x} = \frac{x}{x^2}\)
 
When in doubt, Reg, try a "simple":
1/2 + 1/4 = 2/4 + 1/4
similarly:
1/x + 1/x^2 = x/x^2 + 1/x^2
 
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