I did this one in Mathway, and it said it couldn't be done. And yet Schaum's insists that this integral can be evaluated... and even gives you a hint!
∫ 1/(1+cos(x) dx
should evaluate to
-cotx+ cscx + C
Mathway says it's impossible.
Schaum's insists it IS possible, but you have to multiply the numerator and denominator by 1-cos(x).
This gives me
∫(1-cosx)/sin^2(x) dx
I plug it into Mathway, and they still insists it cannot be found.
Any ideas?
∫ 1/(1+cos(x) dx
should evaluate to
-cotx+ cscx + C
Mathway says it's impossible.
Schaum's insists it IS possible, but you have to multiply the numerator and denominator by 1-cos(x).
This gives me
∫(1-cosx)/sin^2(x) dx
I plug it into Mathway, and they still insists it cannot be found.
Any ideas?