The 1st goal of the mean value theorem is to find the slope of the secant line. The 2nd goal is to find a point on the function which has the same slope as a secant line. But doesn't the derivative itself have something to do with the secant line?
The main goal of Rolle's theorem is to find a point between two points which has a derivative of 0. Before doing so one must make sure the two points have the same y value.
Any mistakes in this reasoning?
The main goal of Rolle's theorem is to find a point between two points which has a derivative of 0. Before doing so one must make sure the two points have the same y value.
Any mistakes in this reasoning?