Mean Value Theorem and Rolle's Theorem

Jason76

Senior Member
Joined
Oct 19, 2012
Messages
1,180
The 1st goal of the mean value theorem is to find the slope of the secant line. The 2nd goal is to find a point on the function which has the same slope as a secant line. But doesn't the derivative itself have something to do with the secant line?

The main goal of Rolle's theorem is to find a point between two points which has a derivative of 0. Before doing so one must make sure the two points have the same y value.

Any mistakes in this reasoning?
 
The 1st goal of the mean value theorem is to find the slope of the secant line. The 2nd goal is to find a point on the function which has the same slope as a secant line. But doesn't the derivative itself have something to do with the secant line?

The main goal of Rolle's theorem is to find a point between two points which has a derivative of 0. Before doing so one must make sure the two points have the same y value.

Any mistakes in this reasoning?

MVT: 1) f(x) must be continuous on [a,b]
2) f(x) must be differentiable on (a,b)
3) f(a) not equal to f(b)

RT: 1) f(x) must be continuous on [a,b]
2) f(x) must be differentiable on (a,b)
3) f(a) = f(b)
 
Top